ANSWER: Jesus while on this earth undoubtedly spoke most often in His native tongue. The language used most commonly in Palestine at that time was a mixture of Hebrew, Chaldaic, and Syriac, called Syro-Chaldaic or Aramaic. This is evidenced further by use of phrases in this language by the inspired writers in Mark 7:34 and Matthew 27:46. However, since the Bible is verbally (word for word) inspired (1 Corinthians 2:13),we can be assured that Christ spoke (Hebrews 1:2) through the Holy Spirit, giving the writers of the New Testament the exact Greek words that He wanted them to use and record in the original manuscripts. In fact, in Matthew 16:18, Christ is understood to be actually speaking in the Greek tongue as He uses a play on the two Greek words Petros (Peter-masculine) and petra (rock-feminine), showing that the church was not built upon Petros, but rather upon petra, i.e., the confession that Peter had made in verse sixteen. The usage of the Greek genders in this passage was critical to the understanding of the apostles as He spoke directly to them and just as critical for us today. The Aramaic would not have provided the necessary distinction! Undoubtedly, Jesus, being God, can speak any language He so desires. In the passages in question (Matthew 4:17 and Luke 1:46-49), Jesus, without doubt, spoke in the language of His hearers (Palestinians) at the time of the speaking. The words that He spoke through the Holy Spirit to the apostles, and which were divinely recorded for you and me, were, with rare exception (e.g., Mark 7:34; Matthew 27:46), in the Greek tongue!