ANSWER: No! This is not true. The comparison in the question is neither accurate nor complete! A baptismal certificate is nothing but a piece of paper that witnesses to the fact of one’s baptism. A marriage certificate is nothing but a piece of paper that witnesses to the fact of a legal marriage (not necessarily scriptural) between a man and a woman. The baptismal certificate does not sanctify the sinner, nor does the marriage certificate sanctify the marriage.

Before one is married to Christ at baptism, he must first repent of his sins. This means he must, in godly sorrow, turn away from those sins; he must get out of them; he must leave them behind! This includes sexual sin! A marriage certificate cannot be granted with the approval of God, or His church, to any persons who continue in adulterous marriages / relationships. Solely confessing a sexual sin does not sanctify it! Just as surely, a certificate does not sanctify it! The only way for a Christian to get rid of his sin is not only to admit he has sinned, but to, as well, scripturally repent (stop doing it) and pray God (Acts 8:22). A thousand admissions of sin; a thousand certificates would do nothing to set aside an unscriptural marriage / relationship!

In considering the many issues of marriage, divorce, and remarriage that are plaguing the Lord’s church today, it is well to remember that God has ordained that there be one husband and one wife for life; that marriage can only be terminated by death (Romans 7:1-3) or in the case, and for the cause, of fornication. The innocent party (the one who has remained pure and not contributed in anyway to their mate’s sin) may (with God’s approval) divorce and marry another. However, the innocent party may choose to be forgiving (upon their mate’s repentance) and continue in the marriage with God’s approval.

Know for sure that what God has joined together man cannot scripturally put asunder (Matthew 19:6)! Though man may try to dissolve marriages for reasons other than death or fornication; though man may announce that a divorce for other reasons is granted; though husband and wife may agree to a divorce for other reasons, the marriage remains intact before God, because man can never scripturally separate that which God has joined together!

Just as sure is the fact that man cannot scripturally join together what God does not join together! Any joining together of man and woman, in which God is not a participant, results in an adulterous, sinful relationship! When Christians look the other way and refuse to deal with these relationships according to the will of God, they become partakers of their evil deeds (II John 9)!

SITUATION: A man and woman are married. Neither are Christians. The man obeys the gospel and, because of this, the woman asks for a divorce. No adultery has taken place at this point. An agreement is reached to enter a trial period wherein neither would marry and attempts at reconciliation would be made. During the trial period the woman commits adultery. The divorce takes place and the man remarries.

The questions:

1. Does God approve of a divorce without Bible reason?

2. Does He approve of the six weeks that Lawyers sometimes give?

3. Is the man committing adultery in his second marriage? The answers:

1. No! Matthew 5:32; Matthew 19:9. “except (if, and only if) it be for the cause of fornication.”

2. There is one reason given in God’s Word whereby a scripturally married couple may forego the sexual responsibility that each has to the other, i.e., for spiritual reasons: “for a time that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer” (I Corinthians 7:5). The reason for not going beyond this is that one may, in any other case or for any other reason, be tempted by Satan to sin, as may be the instance in the situation at hand.

3. Matthew 19:9. “Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery . . .” There are some questions of vital concern to the man in question:

(First): Did he truly divorce his wife for the “cause” of fornication? Was he totally the innocent party or did he some way contribute to his wife’s infidelity? If the man in no way contributed to his wife’s sin and divorced her for the specific “cause” of her fornication, then (and only then) would he be free to marry another. However, he could only marry another who had not been married before, or one who had been previously married and who had divorced her first husband for the “cause” of fornication, she being totally innocent and a noncontributor to his unfaithfulness, otherwise the second marriage would be adulterous.

(Second): If the man in question did not truly divorce his wife for the “cause” of fornication or if he in some way contributed to his wife’s unfaithfulness, he would not be free to remarry another. If he did marry another under this condition, he would be an adulterer, and she whom he married an adulteress, as long as they remained in the second marriage! The scriptural choices under this second condition are: (a) remain single or (b) be reconciled to the first partner.