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QUESTION: If heaven is a place of no pain, no tears, how can the Holy Spirit of God be grieved (Ephesians 4:30)?

ANSWER: Many times in trying to understand the Bible, we often try to see spiritual things in the light of physical things. When we do so, generally, it leads to misunderstanding. Revelation 21:4 says, “And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be anymore pain: for the former things are passed away.” In the context of this chapter, we understand that this earth with all of its physical burdens will pass away, because there is being prepared for the faithful child of God a new dwelling place; a spiritual place for spiritual bodies, into which, flesh and blood cannot enter (1 Corinthians 15:50). The Holy Spirit, not being of flesh and blood, does not endure physical things as you and I! Neither does He suffer grief as you and I! Ephesians 4:30 simply commands us not to engage in any grief-causing physical conduct, which could possibly result in the separation of our spirit from His Spirit!

It is good to know that when physical things have passed away and are replaced by spiritual things, i.e., when the former things have passed away, sin too will have passed away (Revelation 21:27). When this occurs there will be no grief of any kind, because there will be nothing over which to grieve!

STATEMENT: If the Lord calls people today, then the gifts of the Holy Spirit are still given (Acts 2:39).

RESPONSE: This is an assumption that ignores the totality of what God has spoken on the matter! We cannot know the truth on a particular subject until we study and digest all of the relative scriptures. God calls people today through His Holy Spirit-given Word (2 Thessalonians 2:14). Blessings by the Holy Spirit were, and are, given only within the parameters or boundaries prescribed by that Word. From answers to preceding questions, it has been clearly shown that the parameters of God’s Word restricted the use of spiritual gifts (by selected Christians) to a specific time, for a specific purpose. The assumption made in this “Statement” would, when taken to a logical conclusion, demand that every Christian, from the first century until the end of time, be endowed with all of the spiritual gifts. Clearly, from I Corinthians 12, 13, & 14 (written to solve problems with the gifts during the time when they were in use), Acts 8:5-24, and Romans 1:11, we can understand that not all Christians, even in the first century, were endowed with gifts; that only certain Christians possessed certain gifts for a certain time and for a certain purpose!

STATEMENT: If the gifts have passed away, there is no salvation, since we are born of water and the Spirit (John 3:5).

RESPONSE: Again, this passage does not remotely address the issue of miraculous gifts. One is not free to assume that wherever the word “Spirit” appears that Holy Spirit baptism and/or gifts is/are being discussed! The “water”referred to in this passage simply relates to our baptism (immersion) in water for the remission of sins. The word “Spirit” tells us by whose direction we are to be baptized in water. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, we have similar language, “For by one Spirit (that is, through the agency or direction of the Spirit) are we all baptized (in water) into one body.” Indeed, one is saved when he or she is born anew of water and the Spirit!

All must be extremely careful not to read more into a passage than is appropriate. This would be adding to God’s Word (Revelation 22:18-19).

STATEMENT: Ananias was not an apostle, but he laid hands on Paul and he received the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17).

RESPONSE: This, as well, reads more into scripture than was intended. Acts 9:12 states explicitly why Ananias was to lay hands on Paul: “that he might receive his sight.” Nothing more, nothing less! Paul was chosen to be an apostle of our Lord. His becoming an apostle would require baptism in the Holy Spirit, which could only be performed by Christ (Matthew 3:11). Ananias did not have the power to do what our Lord could do! However, his coming to Paul would soon lead to Paul’s baptism in the Holy Spirit. Further, had Paul chosen to reject Ananias, he would also have rejected Christ and the baptism of the Holy Spirit. This is the sense of the passage in question!

STATEMENT: God still calls people today, as He called Ananias.

RESPONSE: The Bible does not tell us when Ananias was called. In Acts 9:10, we learn that he was already a disciple (Christian) when the Lord appeared to him in a vision. If the “Statement” is intended to imply that we today are “called” by the appearance of the Lord in a vision, it would be in contradiction to 2 Thessalonians 2:14, “Wherefore He called you by His Gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.” This is the only way men are called, whether to be Christians or to preach the Word!


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